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  5. Why do the speakers in German 1 use an "sh" sound when pronouncing "mochte," "mochten" etc?

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Why do the speakers in German 1 use an "sh" sound when pronouncing "mochte," "mochten" etc?

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  • A Offline
    A Offline
    Arthur George
    wrote on last edited by
    #1

    In Session 1.4 the rule is given that after a, o, u, and au "ch" has a guttral sound (as in auch), not an "sh" sound like ch after e, i, ei, or a consonant. But in both the tutorials and workouts the speakers consistently pronounce "mochte" and "mochten" with an sh sound, which seems to violate the rule. Help!

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  • DennisGD Offline
    DennisGD Offline
    DennisG
    wrote on last edited by
    #2

    This question comes up periodically, about one language or another, and the answer is always the same: it's a function of regionalism. Speakers in one part of a country pronounce certain words differently from how they're pronounced in other parts. (I remember when I lived in Berlin, I was surprised to hear the soft "sh" sound when I was expecting the more guttural "ch" sound.) Think about English -- whether in America, England, or New Zealand -- and how many different accents and pronunciations we hear. I think it's pretty much the same with every other major language whose speakers are spread out in a wide area.

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  • DhaylenD Offline
    DhaylenD Offline
    Dhaylen
    wrote on last edited by
    #3

    I would love to hear which parts of Germany use the hard " ch " vs soft " sh ". ( And which version Swiss and Austrians use .) I could swear in Vienna and south Germany ( Mosbach ) I always heard the hard/guttural " ch " Any native speakers or expats with info concerning this? Thanks!

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  • Emilie PoyetE Offline
    Emilie PoyetE Offline
    Emilie Poyet
    wrote on last edited by
    #4

    There are lots of regional differences indeed. I'm not an expert, so I'd love confirmation on this, but from what I've read, it is especially different in Bavaria and Austria, and also in South western regions...

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