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Chris Look

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I have finally managed to burn next 'and' 'last' into my memory as "la semana pasada" and "la semana proxima". I normally think of adjectives as following the noun in Spanish so this made sense to me. But now it seems that proxima and pasada go before the noun as in "la proxima reunion". Google translate also has this order. Is there a grammar rule that I'm missing? --- After posting the above, I just noticed that someone else also asked the same question but it was not answered so I'll leave this question here anyway in hopes that someone can shed some light on it. Thanks in advance. Chris

I have finally managed to burn next 'and' 'last' into my memory as "la semana pasada" and "la semana proxima". I normally think of adjectives as following the noun in Spanish so this made sense to me.

But now it seems that proxima and pasada go before the noun as in "la proxima reunion". Google translate also has this order. Is there a grammar rule that I'm missing?

---
After posting the above, I just noticed that someone else also asked the same question but it was not answered so I'll leave this question here anyway in hopes that someone can shed some light on it.

Thanks in advance.

Chris

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Chris Look
Thank you Fabrice and Zac. both comments were very useful to me. Gracias!

Thank you Fabrice and Zac. both comments were very useful to me. Gracias!

Fabrice
Ready to be even more confused? La semana proxima and la proxima semana are both valid constructions. You can place proxima/pasada before a noun for example: La pasada reunión del grupo de trabajo fue un éxito (the last meeting of the working group was a success), or after "En la reunión pasada del grupo de trabajo, resolvimos todos nuestros problemas. (We solved all our problems in the last meeting of the working group). I've seen proxima and pasada used more often before a noun than after, but both are correct. However, when used with "semana", "mes", "año" they are more often used after the noun. Isn't it fun ? There are also some adjectives that change the meaning of the sentence depending on their location. For example: un hombre pobre (a poor man), un pobre hombre (an unfortunate man). In general though, opposite to english, the adjective will come after the noun. "Una casa bonita" (a beautiful house), "il perro negro" (the black dog), "un plato picante" (a spicy dish). A bit more info there: https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/adjective-placement

Ready to be even more confused? La semana proxima and la proxima semana are both valid constructions. You can place proxima/pasada before a noun for example: La pasada reunión del grupo de trabajo fue un éxito (the last meeting of the working group was a success), or after "En la reunión pasada del grupo de trabajo, resolvimos todos nuestros problemas. (We solved all our problems in the last meeting of the working group). I've seen proxima and pasada used more often before a noun than after, but both are correct. However, when used with "semana", "mes", "año" they are more often used after the noun. Isn't it fun ?

There are also some adjectives that change the meaning of the sentence depending on their location. For example: un hombre pobre (a poor man), un pobre hombre (an unfortunate man).

In general though, opposite to english, the adjective will come after the noun. "Una casa bonita" (a beautiful house), "il perro negro" (the black dog), "un plato picante" (a spicy dish).

A bit more info there: https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/adjective-placement

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in this session in particular, "y yo" is pronounced as "ee yo" and not "ee joe" while "yo" by itself is pronounced (normally for this course) as "joe". I understand that pronunciation changes with geographic location and account for this in some of the sessions. But in this lesson "ee yo" occurs in the dialog as well as in Duare's explanation as well as the exercises. is this an exception or just a lapse (or is my hearing off?) thanks in advance!

in this session in particular, "y yo" is pronounced as "ee yo" and not "ee joe" while "yo" by itself is pronounced (normally for this course) as "joe". I understand that pronunciation changes with geographic location and account for this in some of the sessions. But in this lesson "ee yo" occurs in the dialog as well as in Duare's explanation as well as the exercises. is this an exception or just a lapse (or is my hearing off?) thanks in advance!

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Chris Look
Hi Fabrice - thanks for the suggestion but I'm not sure about that since they have not mentioned previously in the course. I'm thinking it is more likely that it was just a lapse between recording both 'Spanish for Spain" and "Spanish for Latin America". Or my hearing is bad...which is also possible! thanks

Hi Fabrice - thanks for the suggestion but I'm not sure about that since they have not mentioned previously in the course. I'm thinking it is more likely that it was just a lapse between recording both 'Spanish for Spain" and "Spanish for Latin America". Or my hearing is bad...which is also possible! thanks

Robert D. Williams
The fricative "joe" sound is typical of Argentina (Buenos Aires) where the same sound is used for "ll". Some new learners of Spanish try to use it as an affectation, but it is not advisable.

The fricative "joe" sound is typical of Argentina (Buenos Aires) where the same sound is used for "ll". Some new learners of Spanish try to use it as an affectation, but it is not advisable.

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