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anglo learner2

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West Linn, Oregon
United States
in reference to: latin american spanish 3, lesson 29 @ 10:16 minutes of Sonia's explanation after the dialog: can I help you(f) ? > puedo ayudarla? my understanding is that "la" is the direct object of the sentence, verdad?, the 2nd person formal (f) "you" - ? however according to the textbook for my sit down spanish class "easy spanish" on page 188, there is NO direct object for "you" (formal) at all in spanish ! and the book says to use "le" for this (the indirect object pronoun for you (formal) in this situation. Or if i'm mistaken and the "la" in the fluenz is the indirect object (ayudar then would be the direct object?) there again is NO indirect object "la" in spanish, it is again "le" for you formal. Entonces aqui es mi pregunta > what is the proper grammatical term for the sentence element in the fluenz "la"? And isn't it proper grammar here to use "le" for you not "la"? very confusing. Me ayuda por favor !!!!!! muchas gracias !

in reference to: latin american spanish 3, lesson 29 @ 10:16 minutes of Sonia's explanation after the dialog: can I help you(f) ? > puedo ayudarla?
my understanding is that "la" is the direct object of the sentence, verdad?, the 2nd person formal (f) "you" - ?
however according to the textbook for my sit down spanish class "easy spanish" on page 188, there is NO direct object for "you" (formal) at all in spanish !
and the book says to use "le" for this (the indirect object pronoun for you (formal) in this situation. Or if i'm mistaken and the "la" in the fluenz is the indirect object (ayudar then would be the direct object?) there again is NO indirect object "la" in spanish, it is again "le" for you formal.
Entonces aqui es mi pregunta > what is the proper grammatical term for the sentence element in the fluenz "la"? And isn't it proper grammar here to use "le" for you not "la"?
very confusing. Me ayuda por favor !!!!!!
muchas gracias !

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James Putney
I am not familiar with your text book, but in Fluenz I think we are taught that we use la and lo for direct object (she, he, you formal), le for indirect object for the same three. Note that in the example, la is the direct object of the infinitive verb ayudar. Perhaps your text means there is no distinct word for you as direct object, it is the same as he/she? This is different from you informal which has its own word, te. Just guessing here.

I am not familiar with your text book, but in Fluenz I think we are taught that we use la and lo for direct object (she, he, you formal), le for indirect object for the same three. Note that in the example, la is the direct object of the infinitive verb ayudar. Perhaps your text means there is no distinct word for you as direct object, it is the same as he/she? This is different from you informal which has its own word, te. Just guessing here.

dxcomic
I thought the same thing, but my Spaniard wife set me straight echoing the lesson's explanation. What I don't know is if South Americans say ayudarle. On the other hand, some areas use commonly direct object pronouns where it should be indirect, and vice versa. Kind of like regional grammar errors in English that are said so much that they become the norm. I wish from time to time a Spaniard would comment. I've been waiting a couple weeks for a question about the verb "cruzar" used as "to turn." I check back every few days.

I thought the same thing, but my Spaniard wife set me straight echoing the lesson's explanation. What I don't know is if South Americans say ayudarle.
On the other hand, some areas use commonly direct object pronouns where it should be indirect, and vice versa. Kind of like regional grammar errors in English that are said so much that they become the norm.

I wish from time to time a Spaniard would comment. I've been waiting a couple weeks for a question about the verb "cruzar" used as "to turn." I check back every few days.

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hi sonia, re: spanish 3-14, in your explanation you said that days of the week are not changed when plural but in the exercises using LOS domingo changed to 'domingos'. Because the singular doesn't end in an 's' ? So what about sábado then? ¿podría ayudarnos?

hi sonia, re: spanish 3-14, in your explanation you said that days of the week are not changed when plural but in the exercises using LOS domingo changed to 'domingos'. Because the singular doesn't end in an 's' ? So what about sábado then?
¿podría ayudarnos?

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anglo learner2
i have the answer > For days of the week ending in "s", the plural is unchanged from the singular. For sábado and domingo (ending in "o") you add an "s" to make the plural.

i have the answer > For days of the week ending in "s", the plural is unchanged from the singular. For sábado and domingo (ending in "o") you add an "s" to make the plural.

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ll, y - pronounced as a "j" in fluenz, I hear some speakers use this and some pronounce both as an english "y" - which, where, why the differences?, i'm in Fluenz spanish 3 now.

ll, y - pronounced as a "j" in fluenz, I hear some speakers use this and some pronounce both as an english "y" - which, where, why the differences?, i'm in Fluenz spanish 3 now.

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sierradave
I now live in Yucatan, Mexico, and the "j" sound seems to be the most common.

I now live in Yucatan, Mexico, and the "j" sound seems to be the most common.

Fabrice
I'm just back from Argentina and they pronounce it "sh". Pollo sounds like "posho". Lllegar like "shegar".

I'm just back from Argentina and they pronounce it "sh". Pollo sounds like "posho". Lllegar like "shegar".

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