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freakin.lasers
Posts: 0
United States
Registered:
Oct 4, 2012
Aug 5, 2018 at 5:51pm

French3, Session 17:
In "Match the Phrases", the translation of "I ate too many chocolates in December" is given as "J'ai trop mangé de chocolats en décembre". However, later in the "Repeat the Phrase" there is this phrase: "Mon estomac me fait un peu mal, j’ai mangé trop de chocolats". Does this mean that "trop" can be either before or after "mangé"?
Thank you!

Emilie Poyet
Posts: 0
Barcelona, Catalunya
United States
Registered:
Dec 1, 2010
Aug 27, 2018 at 10:42am

This one is a bit tricky. The rule to keep in mind is that in the passé composé adverbs like "trop" usually go between être/avoir and the past participle of the verb:
J'ai trop mangé
J'ai beaucoup aimé
J'ai un peu voyagé...
That's because these adverbs usually go right before what they describe.
So in the phrase you're mentioning, it could also go after the participle because it could refer not to the verb "manger" but to the chocolate, which is why the speaker could choose to put it right before chocolate:
J'ai TROP MANGÉ de chocolats
OR
J'ai mangé TROP DE CHOCOLATS
The meaning is the same, only the emphasis changes. Hope this helps, keep up the good work!

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